Mode : Exam Mode / Duration : 180 Minutes ( 3hrs)/  Right answer :  +4 / Wrong Answer : -1 / Unlimited attempts. ( Note Quiz has 200 questions)

NEET Practice Paper 2021 (M1)

This is NEET Practice Paper, You can take the test. Result will be shown at end of test.

1 / 200

Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres  σ1/σ2 is

 

2 / 200

The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be

3 / 200

An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.

 

4 / 200

A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

 

5 / 200

A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since

6 / 200

A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire

Main scale reading : 0 mm.

Circular scale reading : 52 divisions.

Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is

7 / 200

A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is

8 / 200

A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0.

Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n – 1 to t = n.

Then, the ratio Sn / Sn+1 is

9 / 200

Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is √3

10 / 200

A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The  time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is

11 / 200

A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be

12 / 200

Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities.

Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations

Column – I Column – II
a Drift Velocity i m/(ne2ρ)
b Electrical Resistivity ii nevd
c Relaxation Period iii (eE /m)*τ
d Current Density iv E / J

13 / 200

The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

14 / 200

A radioactive nucleus  undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence

where Z is the atomic number of element X.

The possible decay particles in the sequence are

15 / 200

Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine?
(g = 10 m/s2)

16 / 200

The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 10-3 watt will be

(h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)

17 / 200

For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

18 / 200

The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 ohm. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

19 / 200

In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V repaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

20 / 200

Polar molecules are the molecules

21 / 200

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is

0 = permittivity of free space)

 

22 / 200

The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is

 

23 / 200

Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and  identify the correct answer.
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

24 / 200

A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively.

 

25 / 200

If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of

26 / 200

Match Column – I and Column – II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

Column – I Column – II
A Root mean square speed of gas molecules P ⅓ nmv2
B Pressure exerted by ideal gas Q  3RT/M 
C Average kinetic energy of a molecule R 5⁄2 RT
D Total internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas S 3⁄2 kBT

 

27 / 200

A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is

28 / 200

A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C is

29 / 200

A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by
V = V0sinωt
The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by

30 / 200

The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be

 

 

31 / 200

An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The impedance of the circuit is

32 / 200

A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by

33 / 200

An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work  function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength ‘λd‘ , then

34 / 200

The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is

35 / 200

If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy

36 / 200

Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 > R 2the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to

 

37 / 200

A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm froma convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of

38 / 200

Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio  i3/i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is

39 / 200

For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?

40 / 200

A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be

41 / 200

A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s². At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? (Take g = 10 m/s²)

 

42 / 200

A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (Ve = escape velocity)

The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is

43 / 200

A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle θ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ , is then given by

44 / 200

In the product

 

45 / 200

A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s²) nearly

46 / 200

A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,

(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.
(ii) a square of side ‘a’.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are

 

47 / 200

Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.Calculate the potential of the bigger drop

48 / 200

A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium.
(g = 10 m/s²)

49 / 200

From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR²’.

Then the value of ‘K’ is

50 / 200

A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

51 / 200

Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :

52 / 200

Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

53 / 200

The major product of the following chemical reaction is :

54 / 200

A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is :

[speed of light c = 3.0 × 108 ms-1]

55 / 200

The incorrect statement among the following is :

56 / 200

Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :

57 / 200

Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali

58 / 200

Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction?

Choose the right option.

59 / 200

Given below are two statements :

Statement I :

Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

Statement II :

Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

60 / 200

What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

61 / 200

Statement I :

Acid strength increases in the ordergiven as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Statement II :

As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.I n the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

62 / 200

Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and Cfor one mole of ideal gas?

(1) CP+CV=R
(2) CP−CV=R
(3) CP=RCV
(4) CV=RCP

63 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
a PCl5 i Square pyramidal
b SF6 ii Trigonal planar
c BrF5 iii Octahedral
d BF3 iv Trigonal bipyramidal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

64 / 200

The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),10 g of urea (CH4N20) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :

65 / 200

Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

66 / 200

Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?

67 / 200

The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :

68 / 200

The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

69 / 200

The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :

70 / 200

The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer

71 / 200

Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :

72 / 200

The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :

73 / 200

The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is

74 / 200

The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is :

75 / 200

Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?

76 / 200

The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :

77 / 200

The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C—X’ bond is :

78 / 200

An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is

79 / 200

Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :

80 / 200

BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :

81 / 200

The pKb of dimethylamine and pKaa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :

82 / 200

Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs volume of a gas at different temperatures :

83 / 200

For a reaction A -> B, enthalpy of reaction is –4.2 kJ mol–1 and enthalpy of activation is9.6 kJ mol-1. The correct potential energy profile for
the reaction is shown in option

84 / 200

The compound which shows metamerism is :

85 / 200

Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :

86 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I  List-II
a [Fe(CN)6]3- i 5.92 BM
b [Fe(H2O)6]3+ ii 0 BM
c [Fe(CN)6]4- iii 4.90 BM
d [Fe(H2O)6]2+ iv 1.73 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

87 / 200

The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is:

 

88 / 200

From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

89 / 200

The slope of Arrhenius plot ( ln k v/s 1/T) of first order reaction is –5 × 10³K. The value of Ea of the reaction is.

Choose the correct option for your answer.

[Given R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1]

90 / 200

For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

 

91 / 200

In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?

 

92 / 200

The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reaction

93 / 200

The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :

[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]

 

94 / 200

The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm² mo-1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid?

Choose the correct option.

 

95 / 200

Consider the below reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

 

96 / 200

Choose the correct answer from the options given above

97 / 200

The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:

 

98 / 200

Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

99 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

100 / 200

Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :

[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1, T = 273 K]

101 / 200

Which of the following plants is monoecious?

102 / 200

A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

103 / 200

Gemmae are present in

104 / 200

When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :

105 / 200

Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

106 / 200

The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is

107 / 200

The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

108 / 200

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

109 / 200

Amensalism can be represented as:

110 / 200

The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :

111 / 200

Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

112 / 200

Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

113 / 200

Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:

114 / 200

The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is

115 / 200

Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called

116 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.


Choose the correct answer from the options given below

117 / 200

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

118 / 200

DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as

119 / 200

The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :

120 / 200

Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

121 / 200

Which of the following statements is not correct?

122 / 200

In the equation GPP – R = NPP R represents :

123 / 200

Diadelphous stamens are found in

124 / 200

When gene targetting involving gene amplification isattempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease,it is known as :

125 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

Column – I Column – II
a Lenticels i Phellogen
b Cork cambium ii Suberin deposition
c Secondary cortex iii Exchange of gases
d Cork iv Phelloderm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

126 / 200

The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :

127 / 200

Which of the following is a correct sequence ofsteps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

128 / 200

Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

129 / 200

Match List-I with List-I

Column – I Column – II
a Protoplast fusion i Totipotency
b Plant tissue culture ii Pomato
c Meristem culture iii Somaclones
d Micropropagation iv Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

130 / 200

During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :

131 / 200

Complete the flow chart on central dogma

132 / 200

Which of the following is not an application of PCR(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

133 / 200

The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field

134 / 200

Match List-I with List-II

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

135 / 200

Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

136 / 200

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

137 / 200

Match Column-I with Column-II

Choose the correct answer from options given below.

138 / 200

Match Column-I with Column-II

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

139 / 200

Identify the correct statement.

140 / 200

Which of the following statements is correct ?

141 / 200

Select the correct pair.

142 / 200

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as

143 / 200

In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

144 / 200

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

145 / 200

What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

146 / 200

In the exponential growth equation Nt= N0e rt, e represents

147 / 200

Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
followed by its detection using autoradiography because :

148 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

List- I List – II
a Protein i C = C double bonds
b Unsaturated fatty acid ii Phosphodiester bonds
c Nucleic acid iii Glycosidic bonds
d Polysaccharide iv Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

149 / 200

Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

150 / 200

Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site within geneR that confers ampicillin resistance.If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

151 / 200

Identify the incorrect pair

152 / 200

The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase

153 / 200

Match List – I with List – II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

 

154 / 200

Match List-I with List-II.

List – I List – II
a Vaults i Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked
b IUDs ii Removal of Vas deferens
c Vasectomy iii Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus
d Tubectomy iv Removal of fallopian tube

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

155 / 200

If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

156 / 200

Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

157 / 200

Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

158 / 200

Succus entericus is referred to as:

159 / 200

Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuron muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:

160 / 200

With regard to insulin choose correct options.

(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has Cpeptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

161 / 200

Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

162 / 200

Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

163 / 200

Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :

164 / 200

The centriole undergoes duplication during:

165 / 200

Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

166 / 200

Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

167 / 200

Match the following:

List – I List – II
a Physalia i Pearl oyster
b Limulus ii Portuguese Man of War
c Ancylostoma iii Living fossil
d Pinctada iv Hookworm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

168 / 200

During the process of gene amplification using PCR,if very high temperature is not maintained in thebeginning, then which of the following steps of PCRwill be affected first?

169 / 200

Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

170 / 200

The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are

171 / 200

Match List-I with List-II

List – I List – II
a Aspergillus niger i Acetic Acid
b Acetobacter aceti ii Lactic Acid
c Clostridium butylicum iii Citric Acid
d Lactobacillus iv Butyric Acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

172 / 200

For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

173 / 200

Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?

174 / 200

Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :

175 / 200

Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:

176 / 200

Read the following statements

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

177 / 200

In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

178 / 200

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

179 / 200

Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

180 / 200

Sphincter of oddi is present at:

181 / 200

Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

182 / 200

Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

183 / 200

The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

184 / 200

Veneral diseases can spread through :

(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

185 / 200

A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

186 / 200

Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

187 / 200

During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?

(a) ‘H’ zone disappears
(b) ‘A’ band widens
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

188 / 200

Match List-I with List-I

List – I List – II
a Scapula i Cartilaginous joints
b Cranium ii Flat bone
c Sternum iii Fibrous joints
d Vertebral column iv Triangular flat bone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

189 / 200

Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?

190 / 200

Assertion (A):

  • A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

Reason (R):

  • Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

191 / 200

Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’.

(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

192 / 200

The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into

193 / 200

Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

194 / 200

Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

195 / 200

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

196 / 200

Match List-I with List-II

Column – I Column – II
a Filariasis i Haemophilus influenzae
b Amoebiasis ii Trichophyton
c Pneumonia iii Wuchereria bancrofti
d Ringworm iv Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

197 / 200

Match List-I with List – II

List – I LIST – II
a Allen’s Rule i Kangaroo rat
b Physiological adaptation ii Desert lizard
c Behavioural adaptation iii Marine fish at depth
d Biochemical adaptation iv Polar seal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

198 / 200

Match List – I with List – II

Column – I Column – II
a Adaptive radiation i Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides
b Convergent evolution ii Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale
c Divergent evolution iii Wings of Butterfly and Bird
d Evolution by anthropogenic action iv Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

199 / 200

Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II:’AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

200 / 200

Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.

(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures
(d) It is the first body segment

choose the correct answer from below

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