Mode : Exam Mode / Duration : 180 Minutes ( 3hrs)/  Right answer :  +4 / Wrong Answer : -1 / Unlimited attempts

NEET Practice Paper 2020 (E1)

This quiz is in the format of Exam, has 180 questions. Results are displayed at end.

  • Total time duration : 3 hrs or 180 Minutes
  • Points to remember
    • Right answer :  +4
    • Wrong Answer : -1
    • Number of attempts : Unlimited

 

1 / 180

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population ?

2 / 180

The process of growth is maximum during

3 / 180

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are :

4 / 180

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus A

5 / 180

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

6 / 180

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood

7 / 180

Choose the correct pair from the following

8 / 180

Select the correct match

9 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous  pest  (i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (ii) Scorpion
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta

10 / 180

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

11 / 180

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively  in their structure

12 / 180

The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other :
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

13 / 180

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are

14 / 180

Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

15 / 180

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in :

16 / 180

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect ?

17 / 180

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?

18 / 180

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of :

19 / 180

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

20 / 180

Ray florets have

21 / 180

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is

22 / 180

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

23 / 180

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ?

24 / 180

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

25 / 180

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because

26 / 180

Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

27 / 180

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

Column - I Column - II
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis  (i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus molecule (ii) Construction of first rDNA
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

28 / 180

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants

Column - I Column - II
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(c) Boron biosynthesis (iii) Required for chlorophyll
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis

29 / 180

Identify the incorrect statement.

30 / 180

Match the following :

Column - I Column - II
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen

31 / 180

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed

32 / 180

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about

33 / 180

The first phase of translation is

34 / 180

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity ?

35 / 180

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

36 / 180

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features :

(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent.

Identify the category of plant and its part :

37 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits i) Trygon
b) Heterocercal caudal fin ii) Cyclostomes
c) Air Bladder iii) Chondrichthyes
d) Poison sting iv) Osteichthyes

38 / 180

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino  acids by mixing the following in a closed flask

39 / 180

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by

40 / 180

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is

41 / 180

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their

42 / 180

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of :

43 / 180

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the  introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :

44 / 180

Which of the following refer to correct example(s)  of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action ?

(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs

45 / 180

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

46 / 180

By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of  sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino  rams ?

47 / 180

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

48 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a) Clostridium butylicum i) Cyclosporin-A
b) Trichoderma  polysporum ii) Butyric Acid
c) Monascus purpureus iii) Citric Acid
d) Aspergillus niger iv) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

49 / 180

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?

50 / 180

Floridean starch has structure similar to :

51 / 180

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

52 / 180

Match the following with respect to meiosis :

Column - I Column - II
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following :

53 / 180

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae ?

54 / 180

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle ?

55 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Bt cotton i Gene therapy
b Adenosine deaminase  deficiency ii Cellular defence
c RNAi iii Detection of HIV infection
d PCR iv Bacillus thuringiensis

56 / 180

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of :

57 / 180

Which of the following is correct about viroids ?

58 / 180

The ovary is half inferior in

59 / 180

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

60 / 180

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

Column - I Column - II
a Fourth trophic level i Crow
b Second trophic level ii Vulture
c First trophic level iii Rabbit
d Third trophic level iv Grass

Select the correct option :

61 / 180

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits ?

62 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Organ of Corti i Connects middle ear and pharynx
b Cochlea ii Coiled part of the labyrinth
c Eustachian tube iii Attached to the oval window
d Stapes iv Located on the basilar membrane

63 / 180

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

64 / 180

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

65 / 180

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :

 

66 / 180

Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy ?

67 / 180

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

68 / 180

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis ?

69 / 180

In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct ?

70 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Placenta i Androgens
b Zona pellucida ii Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
c Bulbo-urethral glands iii Layer of the ovum
d Leydig cells iv Lubrication of the Penis

71 / 180

Strobili or cones are found in :

72 / 180

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G0).

This process occurs at the end of :

73 / 180

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of :

74 / 180

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs  is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6×109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately :

75 / 180

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents

76 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Eosinophils i Immune response
b Basophils ii Phagocytosis
c Neutrophils iii Release histaminase, destructive enzymes
d Lymphocytes iv Release granules containing histamine

77 / 180

Which of the following statements is correct ?

78 / 180

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :

79 / 180

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

80 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Pituitary gland i Grave’s disease
b Thyroid gland ii Diabetes mellitus
c Adrenal gland iii Diabetes insipidus
d Pancreas iv Addison’s disease

 

81 / 180

Select the correct statement.

82 / 180

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals ?

83 / 180

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :

84 / 180

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a Floating Ribs i Located between second and seventh ribs
b Acromion ii Head of the Humerus
c Scapula iii Clavicle
d Glenoid cavity iv Do not connect with the sternum

85 / 180

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is :

86 / 180

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during :

87 / 180

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

88 / 180

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

89 / 180

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from

90 / 180

Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :

91 / 180

Identify a molecule which does not exist.

92 / 180

Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2  in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2×10-15.

93 / 180

Identify the correct statements from the following :

a) CO2 (g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

94 / 180

Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.
Sucrose+H2O⇌Glucose+Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (KC ) is 2×1013 at 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature will be :

95 / 180

Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions

 

 

 

 

Options

96 / 180

Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name
a Unnilunium i Mendelevium
b Unniltrium ii Lawrencium
c Unnilhexium iii Seaborgium
d Unununnium iv Darmstadtium

97 / 180

An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm.

The atomic radius is :

 

98 / 180

Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment ?

99 / 180

On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :

100 / 180

Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :

101 / 180

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has −O−O− linkage ?

102 / 180

Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test

103 / 180

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ ion is

104 / 180

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is :

105 / 180

The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1. The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places)

106 / 180

The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca=40 g mol-1) is

107 / 180

Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :

108 / 180

Paper chromatography is an example of :

109 / 180

An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :

110 / 180

A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 is :
[Use atomic masses (in g mol-1) : N=14, Ar=40]

111 / 180

Identify the correct statement from the following :

112 / 180

A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following ?

113 / 180

Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

114 / 180

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is :
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction

115 / 180

The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is :

116 / 180

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?

117 / 180

Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?

118 / 180

HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2 , MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s) ?

119 / 180

Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

120 / 180

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide ?

121 / 180

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

122 / 180

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

123 / 180

Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ?

124 / 180

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175 Lu 71, respectively, are :

125 / 180

What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?
CH4 (g) + 4Cl2 (g) → CCl4 (l) + 4HCl(g)

126 / 180

Identify the incorrect statement.

127 / 180

For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2 (g), the correct option is :

128 / 180

Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution ?

129 / 180

Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?

130 / 180

Match the following and identify the correct option.

Column - I Column - II
a CO(g)+H2 (g) i Mg(HCO3)2+Ca(HCO3)2
b Temporary hardness of water ii An electron deficient hydride
c B2H6 iii Synthesis gas
d H2O2 iv Non-planar structure

131 / 180

Match the following :

Oxide Nature
a CO i Basic
b BaO ii Neutral
c Al2O3 iii Acidic
d Cl2O7 iv Amphoteric

Which of the following is correct option?

132 / 180

The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606×10-3 s-1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :

133 / 180

An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is

1)2)

3)4)

134 / 180

Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?

135 / 180

Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :

1)2)3)4)

136 / 180

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?

137 / 180

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of electromagnetic waves)

138 / 180

The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be :

139 / 180

A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 270C.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol-1 K-1)

140 / 180

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :

141 / 180

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :

142 / 180

The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :

143 / 180

A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth ?

144 / 180

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

145 / 180

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :

146 / 180

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is :

147 / 180

In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be :

148 / 180

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

149 / 180

Find the torque about the origin when a force of  3ĵ N acts on a particle whose position vector is 2 kˆ m

150 / 180

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :

151 / 180

A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2×10-7C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere ?

152 / 180

In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is :

153 / 180

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :

154 / 180

A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :

155 / 180

The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as

156 / 180

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct ?

157 / 180

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?

158 / 180

When a uranium isotope 235U92is bombarded with a neutron, it generates 89Kr36 , three neutrons and :

159 / 180

The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10-20 J.

This value in eV is nearly

160 / 180

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :

161 / 180

A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :

162 / 180

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T is  absolute temperature)

163 / 180

Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for copper ?

 

 

 

164 / 180

The color code of a resistance is given below

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are :

165 / 180

In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :

166 / 180

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
The permittivity of the medium is :
0=8.85×10-12 C2 N-1 m-2)

167 / 180

Dimensions of stress are :

 

168 / 180

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :

169 / 180

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is 3 π. If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

170 / 180

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16×10-9 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 600 with the dipole axis is :

 

171 / 180

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m-1. The permeability of the material of the rod is : (µ0=4π×10-7 T m A-1)

172 / 180

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is :
(µ0=4π×10-7 T m A-1)

173 / 180

A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5×10-4 m s-1 in an electric field of 3×10-10 Vm-1, has a mobility in m2 V-1 s-1 of :

174 / 180

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the ratio :

175 / 180

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10-2 nm, the potential difference is :

176 / 180

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ?

177 / 180

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)

178 / 180

A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

179 / 180

A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is :

180 / 180

For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :

Your score is

Was this helpful?

0 / 0

Leave a Reply 0